ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a correct statement by the nurse to a patient under radiation therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement is that Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy. Brachytherapy involves placing radioactive sources inside or near the tumor, delivering a high radiation dose to the targeted area while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissues. Choices A and B are incorrect because pregnant nurses should not administer radiation therapy and brachytherapy does not make the patient radioactive. Choice D is incorrect as feces is not a source of radiation in teletherapy, and it does not require special disposal.
Question 2 of 5
The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer. Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct choice is 'Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli' because fruits and vegetables have been shown to reduce the risk of cancer. Option A, smoked salmon and green beans, although a healthy choice, does not incorporate as many cancer-fighting foods as the correct answer. Option B, pork chops and fried green tomatoes, contains fried food which is associated with increased cancer risk. Option D, liver, onions, and steamed peas, includes organ meats which are not considered beneficial for reducing cancer risk.
Question 3 of 5
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings would be of most concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Mouth sores.' Mouth sores (stomatitis) are a common and potentially serious side effect of chemotherapy. They can lead to difficulty eating, increased risk of infection, and overall decreased quality of life for the client. While alopecia, fatigue, and nausea/vomiting are also common side effects of chemotherapy, they are generally manageable and do not pose the same level of immediate concern as the development of mouth sores in a client undergoing chemotherapy.
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