Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is a common cause of secondary osteoporosis. Chronic inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis can lead to bone loss due to increased osteoclast activity and decreased bone formation. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at an increased risk for developing osteoporosis, resulting in decreased bone density and increased fracture risk. Monitoring and managing bone health is an important aspect of care for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis to help prevent osteoporosis-related complications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are often prescribed for the management of hypertension because they can help relax blood vessels and slow the heart rate, thus reducing blood pressure. One of the major adverse effects associated with calcium channel blockers is bradycardia (slow heart rate) or even more rarely, tachycardia (fast heart rate). Therefore, in a patient prescribed a calcium channel blocker for hypertension, the nurse should closely monitor for any signs and symptoms of tachycardia as it can be a serious adverse effect that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient is likely infected with Cryptosporidium parvum based on the symptoms of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water. Cryptosporidium is a protozoan parasite that can be transmitted through contaminated water sources, such as streams. Laboratory tests revealing oocysts in the stool sample further support the diagnosis of Cryptosporidium infection, as these oocysts are characteristic of this parasite. Giardia lamblia is another common protozoan parasite that can cause similar symptoms but is usually associated with more foul-smelling, greasy diarrhea. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery, which presents with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Cyclospora cayetanensis also causes watery diarrhea, but it is usually associated with foodborne outbreaks rather than waterborne transmission.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Activating emergency medical services (EMS) for rapid transport to a stroke center is the most appropriate action for managing a conscious patient with a suspected stroke. Time is critical in stroke care, and receiving specialized treatment at a stroke center as soon as possible can significantly improve outcomes for stroke patients. EMS providers are trained to recognize the signs of stroke and can begin essential pre-hospital care measures while en route to the hospital. Administering aspirin immediately is not recommended without medical evaluation, as certain types of strokes (such as hemorrhagic strokes) can be worsened by aspirin. Placing the patient in a supine position may not be ideal, as maintaining an elevated position can help prevent aspiration in stroke patients. Encouraging the patient to eat and drink is not appropriate, as swallowing difficulties are common in stroke patients and can lead to aspiration pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acute narrow-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires timely intervention to reduce intraocular pressure. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a medication commonly used to treat this condition as it works as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye. By reducing the production of aqueous humor, acetazolamide helps decrease intraocular pressure rapidly, which is crucial in managing acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other options listed, such as Furosemide (Lasix), Atropine, and Urokinase (Abbokinase), are not typically used in the treatment of acute narrow-angle glaucoma.