Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following immune cells is primarily responsible for coordinating and regulating immune responses by producing cytokines that direct the activities of other immune cells?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: T helper cells (Th cells) are primarily responsible for coordinating and regulating immune responses by producing cytokines that direct the activities of other immune cells. These cytokines help in activating cytotoxic T cells, B cells, macrophages, and other cells involved in the immune response. Th cells play a crucial role in mounting an effective immune response against infections and diseases by providing the necessary signals to activate and control various immune cells. Thus, T helper cells are considered the central coordinators of the immune system.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following conditions may lead to death in a bulimic patient like sherry?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise. The repeated purging in bulimia can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Hypokalemia is a serious condition that can affect the function of the heart's electrical system, potentially leading to the development of cardiac arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats) and even cardiac arrest, which can result in death. Therefore, in a bulimic patient like Sherry, the risk of death is most likely due to the combination of hypokalemia and its complications, such as cardiac arrhythmias and arrest.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of GERD should be closely monitored for the development of osteoporosis. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporotic fractures, particularly in long-term users. This risk is thought to be due to decreased calcium absorption as stomach acidity is reduced by PPIs, leading to potential alterations in bone metabolism and density. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to assess bone health, educate patients on calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and consider other risk factors for osteoporosis in individuals taking PPIs long-term. While hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and Clostridium difficile infection may be seen as adverse effects with other medications or conditions, osteoporosis is the adverse effect most closely monitored in patients taking PPIs for GERD.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following can be a MAJOR PROBLEM for a patient with tracheostomy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Having a tracheostomy means that a patient has an artificial opening in their neck to help them breathe. Therefore, any issues related to breathing, such as blockages in the tracheostomy tube or difficulty in clearing secretions, can pose a major problem for a patient with a tracheostomy. It is crucial to monitor the patient's respiratory status closely and intervene promptly if any breathing difficulties arise to prevent potential respiratory distress or complications.

Question 5 of 5

A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Beta-blockers are a class of medications commonly used to manage hypertension. One of the main mechanisms of action of beta-blockers is to reduce heart rate and contractility by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. As a result, one of the potential adverse effects of beta-blockers is bradycardia, which refers to a slower than normal heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of bradycardia when starting or adjusting the dose of a beta-blocker. Symptoms of bradycardia may include dizziness, fainting, fatigue, or shortness of breath. If bradycardia is severe or symptomatic, it may require dose adjustments or discontinuation of the beta-blocker to prevent complications.

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