microbiology an evolving science test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are all antiviral drugs commonly used to treat influenza. Acyclovir works by inhibiting the replication of herpes viruses, so it is not effective against the influenza virus. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Klebsiella species have a real capsule, which is a distinguishing feature used for their identification. This capsule helps them evade the host immune response. Additionally, Klebsiella species are non-motile, meaning they do not possess flagella for movement. Choices B and C are incorrect because Klebsiella species are facultative anaerobes and do not form spores under any conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as option A is the correct statement for genus Klebsiella.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two-layer. In gram-positive bacteria, the cell envelope consists of two layers: the thick peptidoglycan layer and the cytoplasmic membrane. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker compared to gram-negative bacteria, providing structural support and protection. The cytoplasmic membrane is located beneath the peptidoglycan layer and serves as a barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment. The other choices are incorrect because gram-positive bacteria do have a cell envelope, it is composed of two layers, not three layers, and it is not just a single layer. Choice D is incorrect as it states that there is no cell envelope in gram-positive bacteria, which is not true.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relenza and Tamiflu. Both Relenza and Tamiflu are anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, thereby inhibiting its replication and spread. Maxi Grip (A) is not an anti-influenza drug, Theraflu (B) contains different active ingredients, and Amantadine and Rimantadine (C) target a different viral protein, M2 ion channel. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically target neuraminidase for influenza treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Penicillin. Penicillin is the drug of first choice for treating syphilis due to its effectiveness in eradicating the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis. It is the most reliable treatment with well-established efficacy. Gentamicin (A), ciprofloxacin (C), and chloramphenicol (D) are not recommended for treating syphilis as they are not effective against the specific bacteria causing the infection. Penicillin remains the gold standard for syphilis treatment.