Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wear sunglasses. Dilated pupils are sensitive to light, so wearing sunglasses can help protect the eyes from excessive light exposure. Keeping the eyes closed (A) may provide temporary relief but does not protect the eyes from light. Avoiding driving for 8 hours (C) is important after certain eye procedures but not specifically related to dilated pupils. Avoiding caffeinated beverages (D) is unrelated to pupil dilation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to central obesity with fat accumulation in the trunk and dorsocervical area (buffalo hump). This is due to cortisol's role in redistributing fat. A: hypotension is incorrect because individuals with Cushing's syndrome typically have hypertension due to the effects of excess cortisol on blood pressure regulation. B: thick, coarse skin is incorrect as individuals with Cushing's syndrome may have thin, fragile skin due to decreased collagen formation. D: weight gain in arms and legs is incorrect as the weight gain in Cushing's syndrome tends to be centralized in the trunk and face rather than the extremities.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.