Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Checking circulation to the right hand is crucial for assessing perfusion and detecting potential complications. Step 2: Arterial line placement can compromise blood flow, leading to ischemia if circulation is impaired. Step 3: Monitoring circulation every 2 hours allows for early detection of issues and prompt intervention. Step 4: This action ensures patient safety and prevents complications. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as pressurized flush solution can increase the risk of complications. - Choice C is incorrect as monitoring the waveform is important but not the most critical action. - Choice D is incorrect as limb restraints can impede circulation and are unnecessary in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR). SVR reflects the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring SVR, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload, as these medications work by dilating blood vessels and reducing resistance. An effective reduction in afterload would lead to a decrease in SVR. A: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is an indicator of perfusion pressure but may not directly reflect changes in afterload. C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is specific to the pulmonary circulation and not directly related to left ventricular afterload. D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is a measure of left ventricular preload and filling pressures, not afterload.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because placing the patient with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is the best position for obtaining an accurate PAOP reading. Elevating the head of the bed helps to align the phlebostatic axis with the atrium, ensuring an accurate measurement of PAOP. This position reduces the impact of hydrostatic pressure on the reading. Options A and D are incorrect because the supine position and recording during exhalation or just before the increase in pressures during inhalation can lead to inaccurate readings. Option B is incorrect because documenting the average PAOP after three measurements does not address the importance of positioning for accuracy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxemia due to the body's response to low oxygen levels. Step 2: Restlessness occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because clubbing and cyanosis are late signs, while hypotension is not a specific early sign of hypoxemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed. A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4�F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT. B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment. C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.