ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
What is the appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in cases of myocardial infarction. Nitroglycerin is commonly used for chest pain related to angina but is not the first-line treatment for all types of chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary for comfort or assessment but is not the immediate priority. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications.
Question 3 of 5
How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
Question 4 of 5
A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
Question 5 of 5
A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary choices by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leafy green vegetables. Leafy green vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health and can help prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Carrots (choice A), while nutritious, are not as high in calcium as leafy green vegetables. Milk (choice B) is also a good source of calcium but may not be suitable for clients who are lactose intolerant. Bananas (choice D) are a healthy fruit choice but do not provide significant amounts of calcium needed for osteoporosis.
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