ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which immunoglobulin is the first to appear in response to a new antigen?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to a new antigen. It is produced initially during the primary immune response. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is produced in a secondary immune response and is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the bloodstream. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not the initial response to a new antigen.
Question 2 of 5
A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.
Question 3 of 5
What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.
Question 4 of 5
During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.
Question 5 of 5
A 20-year-old college student has presented to the campus medical clinic seeking to begin oral contraceptive therapy. The nurse has recognized the need for adequate health education related to the patient's request. The nurse should emphasize the fact that successful prevention of pregnancy depends primarily on the patient's
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.' When initiating oral contraceptive therapy, the success of preventing pregnancy relies heavily on the patient's commitment to following the prescribed regimen consistently. Compliance with taking the oral contraceptives as directed is crucial for their effectiveness. Choice A, 'current health status,' is not the primary factor for successful prevention of pregnancy with oral contraceptives. Choice C, 'knowledge of sexual health,' while important, is not the primary determinant of contraceptive efficacy. Choice D, 'risk factors for adverse effects,' though relevant for monitoring and managing side effects, is not the primary focus for ensuring contraceptive success.
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