ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which condition is characterized by chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angina. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, often due to coronary artery disease. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, involves the death of heart muscle tissue due to a lack of blood supply, presenting with symptoms similar to angina but more severe. Pericarditis (Choice C) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which may cause chest pain but is not primarily due to reduced blood flow. Arrhythmia (Choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms but is not directly related to chest pain due to reduced blood flow.
Question 2 of 5
What is a condition where the walls of the arteries in the lungs become thickened and stiff, leading to increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by the thickening and stiffening of the arteries in the lungs, resulting in elevated blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries. This condition is distinct from the other choices provided. Pulmonary fibrosis involves scarring of lung tissue, pulmonary embolism is a blockage in the pulmonary artery, and pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs.
Question 3 of 5
The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.
Question 4 of 5
The client is on amiodarone. What is the most important side effect to monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known for causing serious pulmonary toxicity, which can be fatal. Monitoring for pulmonary toxicity is crucial due to its potential severity. Choice B, thyroid dysfunction, is a common side effect of amiodarone but is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary toxicity. Choices C and D, liver toxicity and renal dysfunction, are potential side effects of amiodarone but are not as critical or as common as pulmonary toxicity, making them less important to monitor initially.
Question 5 of 5
The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.
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