Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Develop good communication skills. In interdisciplinary collaboration, effective communication is essential for teamwork. By developing good communication skills, the nurse can effectively interact with other healthcare professionals to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect as the nurse should collaborate as part of a team, not necessarily be the leader. Choice C is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration involves working with professionals from various disciplines. Choice D is incorrect as conflict resolution is an important aspect of effective collaboration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, "Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting." This option correctly identifies the cause of the fluid volume deficit as uncontrolled vomiting, which is a common reason for fluid loss. The nursing diagnosis should always reflect the underlying cause of the issue. A is incorrect as "furrow tongue" is not a recognized medical term related to fluid volume deficit. C is incorrect because dehydration is not typically related to subnormal body temperature unless it is severe. D is incorrect as incessant vomiting is more specific to the cause, but the term "dehydration" should be used instead of "fluid volume deficit" in this context. In summary, option B is the appropriate nursing diagnosis as it accurately links the fluid volume deficit to the cause of uncontrolled vomiting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Neomycin is given preoperatively to decrease and retard the growth of normal bacteria in the intestines. This helps reduce the risk of infection during surgery by minimizing the number of bacteria present in the colon. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because Neomycin is not given to prevent infection postoperatively, eliminate the need for preoperative enemas, or treat cancer of the colon. The main purpose of administering Neomycin in this scenario is to create a sterile surgical field by reducing the normal flora in the intestines.