microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed (Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, Clostridium botulinum) can produce toxins leading to food poisoning. Staphylococcus aureus produces heat-stable toxins causing rapid onset of symptoms. Escherichia coli can produce toxins like Shiga toxin leading to severe foodborne illness. Clostridium botulinum produces neurotoxins causing botulism. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacteria can produce toxins that are harmful if ingested.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Aminoglycosides primarily inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit in bacteria. This action leads to misreading of mRNA and ultimately disrupts the translation process, resulting in faulty protein production and bacterial cell death. Incorrect choices: B: Aminoglycosides do not inhibit DNA replication. C: Aminoglycosides do not disrupt cell membrane integrity. D: Aminoglycosides do not inhibit folic acid synthesis. In summary, the correct choice (A) aligns with the known mechanism of action of aminoglycosides, making it the most appropriate answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a common bacterium found in the gastrointestinal tract and is a leading cause of UTIs. It has specific virulence factors that enable it to adhere to and infect the urinary tract. Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, and Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium known for causing UTIs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella typhi. The patient's symptoms of diarrhea and the characteristics of non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that are oxidase-positive and fermentative are consistent with Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever, which presents with symptoms like diarrhea. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (choice A) is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Escherichia coli (choice B) is both lactose-fermenting and oxidase-negative. Shigella dysenteriae (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Therefore, Salmonella typhi is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum. The symptoms described in the question, such as bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils, and difficulty reading, are indicative of tetanus infection. The source of infection could be the scratch on the knee, which allowed the tetanus bacteria to enter the body. The most appropriate therapy for tetanus is the administration of antitetanus serum to neutralize the tetanus toxin. Antibotulinic serum (choice A) is not appropriate as it is used for botulism, which presents differently. Disintoxication (choice B) is too general and does not address the specific cause of the symptoms. Antibiotics (choice C) are not effective in treating tetanus because it is caused by a toxin, not a bacterial infection. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer antitetanus serum to the patient.