ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that produces a toxin leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Clostridium botulinum (A) causes botulism, Salmonella enterica (C) causes salmonellosis, and Escherichia coli (D) can cause various illnesses but not cholera. Vibrio cholerae is the only bacteria specifically known for causing cholera.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because there is specific prophylaxis available for influenza, such as the flu vaccine. Choice A is incorrect as influenza viruses are not spherical, they are typically pleomorphic. Choice B is incorrect because hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are indeed antigenically variable, contributing to the need for annual flu vaccines. Choice C is incorrect as the susceptibility of the population to influenza viruses can vary depending on factors such as immunity and vaccination status.
Question 3 of 5
Which is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.
Question 4 of 5
What is the best therapeutic plan for treating actinomycosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, chemotherapy combined with surgical therapy. Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection that requires a combination of antibiotics to target the bacteria and surgery to remove abscesses or infected tissues. Antibiotics alone may not penetrate abscesses effectively. Waiting for self-clearance can lead to complications. Surgical treatment alone may not eradicate the infection entirely. Therefore, the most effective therapeutic plan is to combine chemotherapy to treat the infection systemically and surgery to remove localized infections.
Question 5 of 5
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.
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