ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which bacteria is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to cause a wide range of infections and its resistance to multiple antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections, and surgical site infections, making it a significant threat in healthcare settings. Escherichia coli (choice A) is more commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Clostridium difficile (choice B) is known for causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Bacillus anthracis (choice D) is primarily associated with anthrax infections, which are not typically acquired in hospital settings.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.
Question 4 of 5
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. On section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored, in the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthoma cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Actinomycosis. Actinomycosis is a chronic suppurative bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, which form sulfur granules in purulent masses surrounded by dense fibrous tissue. In this case, the presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthoma cells, and macrophages in the histological examination is characteristic of actinomycosis. The clinical presentation of skin redness, swelling, and abscess formation in the neck area also aligns with actinomycosis. Choice A: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, presenting with a painless chancre at the site of infection, not skin redness and swelling in the neck area. Choice B: Carbuncle is a bacterial skin infection involving a group of hair follicles, typically on the back of the neck, not characterized by fungal druses or sulfur granules. Choice D: Leprosy
Question 5 of 5
Microscopy of a sputum smear revealed acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method indicates a mycobacterial infection. Among the choices, tuberculosis is the most common mycobacterial infection affecting the lungs, presenting with acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, but it typically does not show up in sputum smears. Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is not acid-fast. Pneumonia is a general term for lung inflammation caused by various pathogens, not specifically mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is tuberculosis based on the microscopy findings.
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