Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weak, slow pulse. Circulatory overload typically presents with signs of fluid volume excess, such as moist gurgling respirations, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and coughing. A weak, slow pulse is not a characteristic sign of circulatory overload, as the heart rate may actually be elevated due to the increased fluid volume. Therefore, a weak, slow pulse would not be likely to occur in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) because it specifically measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A prolonged PTT indicates that heparin is achieving the desired anticoagulant effect. A: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. C: PT (Prothrombin Time) is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. D: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy and is more focused on platelet function rather than coagulation factors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. This procedure allows direct visualization of the lower colon and rectum, enabling the detection of colorectal cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in the stool but does not confirm cancer. Abdominal CT (B) can show abnormalities but is not specific for colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker but is not definitive for diagnosis. Sigmoidoscopy (D) is the gold standard for diagnosing colorectal cancer as it allows for direct visualization and tissue biopsy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking a laxative like Senokot can affect the results of an IVP by altering bowel motility and potentially causing inaccurate imaging. Choice B is related to bladder sensation, which is not directly relevant to an IVP. Choice C indicates a possible allergic reaction to mussels, which is unrelated to the procedure. Choice D mentions headaches, which are also not directly linked to an IVP. In summary, only choice A directly impacts the accuracy of the IVP results, making it the most concerning statement for Nurse Aura.