ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.
Question 2 of 5
A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
Question 3 of 5
What is the antidote for Warfarin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following side effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, can cause reflex tachycardia, leading to an increased heart rate. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of the client's condition. Choice A (Orthostatic hypotension) is incorrect as Hydralazine is more likely to cause reflex tachycardia than orthostatic hypotension. Choice C (Dark-colored urine) and Choice D (Persistent cough) are unrelated to the common side effects of Hydralazine and should not be the focus of monitoring for this medication.
Question 5 of 5
When teaching a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition characterized by overgrowth of gum tissue. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of gingival hyperplasia, such as swollen or bleeding gums. Good oral hygiene practices are essential to prevent or manage this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause a mild rash, should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, and does not warrant an increase in calcium intake.
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