ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What should the client at risk for developing AIDS be advised to do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an ELISA test for antibodies is crucial to detect HIV infection early. This test can help diagnose HIV before symptoms appear, allowing for early intervention and treatment. Choice A is important but not specific to HIV prevention. Choice B is irrelevant for HIV prevention. Choice D, while important, should not take precedence over getting tested for HIV.
Question 2 of 5
Following a splenectomy, a client has a hemoglobin (Hb) level of 7.5g/dl and has vertigo when getting out of bed. The nurse suspects abnormal orthostatic changes. The vital sign values that would most support the nurse�s analysis are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drop in blood pressure and rise in heart rate. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for orthostatic hypotension due to decreased blood volume. A drop in blood pressure and a compensatory rise in heart rate are common orthostatic changes. This occurs because the body tries to maintain perfusion to vital organs. A rise in blood pressure and heart rate (Choice A) would not align with orthostatic changes. A rise in blood pressure and drop in heart rate (Choice B) is contradictory to the body's compensatory response to maintain perfusion. Therefore, the most supportive vital sign values for abnormal orthostatic changes in this client would be a drop in blood pressure and a rise in heart rate.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with abnormal sodium losses is receiving a house diet. To provide 1,600mg sodium daily, the nurse could supplement the patient�s diet with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because 1 beef cube contains about 1,000mg of sodium. To reach 1,600mg, the patient needs an additional 600mg. 12oz of tomato juice contains approximately 600mg of sodium, making it the right choice. A: Not enough sodium from the beef cube and tomato juice. B: Too much sodium from the 16oz of tomato juice. C: Too much sodium from the 4 beef cubes.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following method if used by Wilma will best assure that the tracheostomy ties are not too tightly placed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wilma places 2 fingers between the tie and neck. This method ensures that the tracheostomy ties are not too tightly placed by providing a standardized and easily replicable measurement. Placing 2 fingers ensures there is adequate space for proper airflow and movement without causing pressure or constriction. This method is a widely accepted practice in healthcare settings to prevent complications such as skin breakdown or restricted blood flow. Incorrect choices: B: The tracheotomy can be pulled slightly away from the neck - This does not provide a standardized measurement and may not accurately assess the tightness of the ties. C: James� neck veins are not engorged - Monitoring neck veins does not directly correlate with the tightness of tracheostomy ties. D: Wilma measures the tie from the nose to the tip of the earlobe and to the xiphoid process - This method may not accurately reflect the appropriate tightness of the ties around the neck.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the ff. type of eyedrops does the nurse understand is given to constrict the pupil, permitting aqueous humor to flow around the lens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Myotic. Myotic eyedrops constrict the pupil, allowing aqueous humor to flow around the lens. Myotic agents, such as pilocarpine, work by stimulating the sphincter muscle of the iris. Osmotic eyedrops (A) reduce intraocular pressure, mydriatic eyedrops (B) dilate the pupil, and cycloplegic eyedrops (D) paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent accommodation.
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