ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm� indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps to relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart, thereby reducing cardiac workload. This intervention aims to alleviate symptoms and prevent further cardiac damage. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice B) is important for diagnosing a myocardial infarction but is not the initial intervention for unstable angina. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) may be indicated in specific cases like hypovolemia but is not the primary intervention for unstable angina. Monitoring for chest pain (Choice D) is essential but taking action to alleviate the pain, like administering nitroglycerin, is the primary focus in the initial management of unstable angina.