ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

Questions 66

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

Question 2 of 5

What teaching should be provided to a patient following cataract surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following cataract surgery is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs should be avoided post-cataract surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice B, wearing dark glasses outdoors, is important to protect the eyes from bright light but is not directly related to medication use. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is incorrect as drainage should be monitored for excessive redness, swelling, or pain. Choice D, avoiding alcohol, is not a direct post-cataract surgery teaching point related to medication use.

Question 3 of 5

What are the signs of compartment syndrome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment. Choice B, muscle weakness, and hyporeflexia are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Choice C, pins-and-needles sensation and swelling, are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, severe swelling and tightness in the affected extremity, could be seen in compartment syndrome but are not the primary signs.

Question 4 of 5

What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

Question 5 of 5

What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.

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