Critical Care Nursing Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus as a blood clot can dislodge from the veins, travel to the lungs, and block blood flow. An amniotic fluid embolus (Choice A) occurs during childbirth and is rare as a cause of pulmonary embolism. A fat embolus (Choice C) typically occurs after a long bone fracture and is more likely to cause issues in the lungs. Vegetation from an infected central venous catheter (Choice D) can cause septic pulmonary embolism, but it is not as common as DVT.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery. Rationale: 1. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. 2. During surgery, the parasympathetic stimulation can lead to bradycardia (slow heart rate). 3. By administering atropine, the nurse can counteract the bradycardic effects and maintain a normal heart rate during the procedure. 4. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as atropine is not used for inducing anesthesia, relaxation, or minimizing postoperative analgesia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it acknowledges and validates the patient's belief, showing empathy and support. By stating that the belief gives strength, the nurse facilitates a therapeutic relationship and promotes the patient's emotional well-being. Choice A is incorrect as it challenges the patient's belief system, potentially creating conflict. Choice C is inappropriate as it dismisses the patient's belief and could damage the nurse-patient relationship. Choice D is also incorrect as it invalidates the patient's belief and could harm trust and rapport.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion. - C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death. - D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the patient is a 36-year-old with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 and no activity on electroencephalogram, indicating severe brain injury and likely irreversible neurological damage. This patient meets the criteria for potential organ donation as they are neurologically devastated. Choice B is incorrect because the patient's condition is related to stroke and atrial fibrillation, not severe brain injury that would make them a candidate for organ donation. Choice C is incorrect because although the patient has a brain injury and a lower Glasgow Coma Scale score, the history of a reversible cause (ovarian cancer metastasis) and a higher GCS score compared to choice A make this patient less suitable for organ donation evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as the patient's diabetic and cardiovascular history does not suggest severe brain injury that would qualify for organ donation.