ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the best way to detect testicular cancer early?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monthly testicular self-examination. This is the best way to detect testicular cancer early because it allows individuals to become familiar with the normal size, shape, and texture of their testicles, making it easier to notice any changes or abnormalities. Self-examination is cost-effective, convenient, and can be done regularly to monitor for any signs of cancer. Annual physician examination (B) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Yearly digital rectal examination (C) is not relevant for detecting testicular cancer. Annual ultrasonography (D) is not recommended as a routine screening tool for testicular cancer.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. A client with diabetes mellitus should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wash and inspect the feet daily. This is important for clients with diabetes mellitus to prevent complications like foot ulcers. Daily foot care helps detect any issues early. Choice A is incorrect as it is not recommended to use commercial preparations without medical advice. Choice C is incorrect as walking barefoot can increase the risk of injury and infection. Choice D is incorrect as cutting toenails by rounding edges can lead to ingrown toenails, which can be dangerous for clients with diabetes.
Question 3 of 5
Why does the nurse instruct the client to avoid Valsalva maneuvers?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because performing Valsalva maneuver can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing the client to lose consciousness. This occurs due to the increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to decreased venous return to the heart. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the consequences of Valsalva maneuver. Option A stating that the client's blood pressure will decrease momentarily is incorrect as it actually increases initially. Option C suggesting that the client may suffer from a myocardial infarction is incorrect as Valsalva maneuver does not directly cause heart attacks. Option D implying that the client's blood pressure will increase momentarily is also incorrect as the immediate effect is a rise followed by a significant drop.
Question 4 of 5
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis may experience respiratory muscle weakness, leading to difficulty breathing and an increased risk of respiratory complications such as pneumonia or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the muscles responsible for breathing in these conditions. Progressive deterioration until death (A) is not always the case and varies depending on the condition and individual. Deficiencies of essential neurotransmitters (B) is not a common symptom in these conditions. Involuntary twitching of small muscle groups (D) is not a characteristic symptom of these neurological disorders.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following types of cells is the immune system�s shutoff mechanism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppressor T cells. Suppressor T cells regulate the immune response by inhibiting the activity of other immune cells to prevent overreaction and maintain immune balance. They play a crucial role in preventing autoimmune diseases and excessive inflammation. Plasma cells (A) produce antibodies, Helper T cells (C) assist in activating other immune cells, and B lymphocytes (D) are involved in antibody production. Suppressor T cells specifically have the function of shutting down immune responses, making them the immune system�s shutoff mechanism.
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