ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

Questions 71

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation levels and alleviates respiratory distress directly. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen supply, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, while important for airway clearance, may not address the immediate need for oxygen. Providing bronchodilators and humidified air can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration takes precedence.

Question 2 of 5

Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

Question 3 of 5

A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.' This instruction is crucial when taking alendronate as it reduces the risk of esophagitis by preventing the medication from irritating the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime, to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, with a full glass of water. Choice D is incorrect as there are no specific restrictions on taking alendronate with calcium-rich foods.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, which can be a sign of complications in clients receiving chemotherapy. Rapid weight gain can be associated with conditions like fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, which need prompt medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are not typically immediate concerns related to chemotherapy. Alopecia (choice A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy, a white blood cell count of 6,000/mm� (choice C) falls within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2�C (99�F) (choice D) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in this context.

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