ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps alleviate respiratory distress and improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen levels in the blood due to the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation caused by the embolism. Administering anticoagulants (choice B) is a treatment for confirmed pulmonary embolism rather than a suspected case. Repositioning the patient (choice C) or administering bronchodilators (choice D) would not directly address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange and oxygen delivery associated with pulmonary embolism.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access