Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cerebral atherosclerosis is the correct answer. It is a condition where the arteries in the brain become blocked or narrowed due to plaque buildup, leading to reduced blood flow and an increased risk of stroke. Choice B, Coronary artery disease, specifically affects the arteries supplying blood to the heart, not the brain. Choice C, Pulmonary embolism, involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery that affects blood flow to the lungs, not the brain. Choice D, Peripheral artery disease, refers to a condition where blockages occur in arteries outside of the heart and brain, typically affecting the limbs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.