test bank for health assessment

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The given ABG values fall within normal ranges, indicating homeostasis. The pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating acid-base balance. The PO2 is slightly lower but still within the normal range (80-100 mmHg). PCO2 falls within the normal range (35-45 mmHg), showing effective ventilation. The HCO3 level is also within the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating proper kidney function. Therefore, all values are within normal limits, reflecting a state of homeostasis. Other choices are incorrect as they suggest imbalances in acid-base status, which is not seen with these values.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Stop the transfusion - Febrile reaction can indicate a transfusion reaction, so stopping the transfusion is crucial. Step 2: Administer antipyretics - To reduce fever and prevent further complications. Step 3: Assess for other signs of transfusion reaction - Such as chills, rash, or hypotension. Summary: Option A is correct as it addresses the immediate need to stop the transfusion and manage the fever. Options B, C, and D do not prioritize stopping the transfusion, which is crucial in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer IV fluids when a client's blood pressure drops significantly. This helps increase blood volume and improve circulation, stabilizing the blood pressure. Administering pain medication (B) does not address the root cause of low blood pressure. Applying a heating pad (C) is not effective in treating low blood pressure. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (D) is important but not the immediate action needed to address a significant drop in blood pressure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. In DIC, there is consumption of coagulation factors leading to decreased fibrinogen levels. Heparin therapy helps by inhibiting further thrombus formation, allowing the body to replenish fibrinogen levels. Increased fibrinogen indicates a positive response. Incorrect choices: A) increased platelet count is not specific to Heparin therapy in DIC, C) decreased fibrin split products indicate ongoing coagulation, not a positive response, and D) decreased bleeding is a general response and not specific to Heparin therapy in DIC.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiepileptic drugs. This is the most important nursing action for a client with a history of seizures because antiepileptic drugs help prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of seizures. By ensuring the client receives their prescribed medication, the nurse can help manage the condition effectively. Placing the client on their side (B) is important to prevent aspiration if a seizure occurs, but administering antiepileptic drugs is more crucial for long-term management. Checking the airway (C) is important during and after a seizure but does not address the underlying cause. Monitoring for hypoglycemia (D) is important as a potential trigger for seizures, but administering antiepileptic drugs takes precedence in managing the condition.