ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac workload. This action aims to relieve chest pain promptly and prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Increasing fluids is not the initial priority for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining cardiac enzymes is important for diagnosis but is not the first action in managing acute symptoms. Getting IV access and auscultating heart sounds are important interventions, but they come after administering sublingual nitroglycerin in the management of acute coronary syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods because they can increase gastric acid production, exacerbating symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms due to lying down with a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, promoting acid reflux. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for GERD patients, as it may temporarily soothe symptoms but can ultimately stimulate acid production.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to T wave abnormalities. While prominent U waves are typically associated with hypokalemia as well, flattened T waves are the most specific and sensitive ECG abnormality seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia and are more indicative of other electrolyte imbalances or cardiac conditions.