ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.
Question 2 of 5
What are the signs and symptoms of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritability, confusion, restlessness. These are common signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP) as they result from the increased pressure on brain tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and shortness of breath (SOB) are not typical symptoms of IICP. Changes in pupillary response can be seen in other conditions but are not specific to IICP. Elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP.
Question 3 of 5
What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.
Question 4 of 5
What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
Question 5 of 5
What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.
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