WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

Questions 39

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

What critical point should the nurse include in patient education regarding tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with breast cancer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, redness, and pain in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with causing hot flashes, weight gain, fluid retention, or decreasing the risk of osteoporosis.

Question 2 of 5

A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barr� syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barr� syndrome.

Question 3 of 5

A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, "I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend." How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

Question 5 of 5

A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

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