microbiology chapter 11 test bank

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

What are the two main targets currently used in anti-HIV therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reverse transcriptase and protease. Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA, a crucial step in viral replication. Protease is responsible for cleaving viral polyproteins into functional proteins. Targeting both enzymes disrupts viral replication. Choice A is incorrect as integrase is not a main target in current therapy. Choice C is incorrect because protease is targeted along with reverse transcriptase, not integrase. Choice D is incorrect as targeting viral glycoproteins is not a main strategy in anti-HIV therapy.

Question 2 of 5

Which bacteria is known for causing the disease tetanus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct: 1. Clostridium tetani is known to produce tetanus toxin. 2. The tetanus toxin causes muscle rigidity and spasms characteristic of tetanus. 3. Clostridium perfringens is associated with gas gangrene, not tetanus. 4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not tetanus. 5. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not tetanus. In summary, Clostridium tetani is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with causing tetanus, while the other choices are associated with different diseases.

Question 3 of 5

Which bacteria produce urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is known for producing urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid. 2. Urease enzyme converts urea into ammonia, buffering the acidic pH. 3. This adaptation allows H. pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Shigella flexneri do not produce urease. 5. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the unique urease-producing capability of H. pylori.

Question 4 of 5

A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast

Question 5 of 5

Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.

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