Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: External cephalic version. This procedure involves manually manipulating the baby from a breech position to a head-down position. It is recommended as a safe and effective way to manage breech presentations, reducing the need for a cesarean section. Immediate cesarean (B) is not always necessary and should be reserved for specific medical reasons. Pelvic X-ray (C) is not routinely recommended for managing breech presentations. Induction of labor (D) is not the primary strategy for managing breech presentations, as it does not address the positioning of the baby.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because uterine rupture can lead to severe complications such as hemorrhage from blood vessels tearing, uterine atony causing failure of the uterus to contract, infection due to exposure of internal tissues, and peritonitis from inflammation of the abdominal lining. Choices B and C are incorrect as they list complications that are not directly associated with uterine rupture. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse, fetal distress, placental abruption are potential consequences of other obstetric complications but not specifically uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer given the context of uterine rupture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays. Explanation of other choices: B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively. C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation. D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Down syndrome is primarily caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. This means there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic features of the syndrome. Mosaicism and translocation of chromosome 21 can also result in Down syndrome, albeit less frequently. Option A includes deletion, which is not a common cause of Down syndrome. Option B lists duplication, which is not a typical mechanism for Down syndrome. Option C includes deletion and mosaicism, but trisomy is the main cause of Down syndrome, making option D the most accurate choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Bishop's score assesses the readiness of the cervix for labor by evaluating descent (station of the fetal head), presentation (fetal position), and cervical dilatation, which are key indicators of cervical ripening and effacement. Descent shows the progress of the fetus through the birth canal, presentation indicates the fetal position for delivery, and cervical dilatation reflects the opening of the cervix for labor. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass all the essential components of Bishop's score, which focuses on descent, presentation, and cervical dilatation.