Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study. ARDS diagnosis requires bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, indicative of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Choice B, decreased cardiac output, is not a diagnostic criterion for ARDS. Choice C, PaO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 200, is a key diagnostic criteria for ARDS, indicating severe hypoxemia. Choice D, PAOP of more than 18 mm Hg, is used to differentiate between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema, but it is not a direct diagnostic criterion for ARDS.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Manage the patient's pain and symptoms. In palliative care, the primary goal is to provide comfort and improve quality of life for terminally ill patients. Managing pain and symptoms is crucial in achieving this goal. By addressing pain and symptoms, the nurse can help enhance the patient's comfort and well-being. Other choices are incorrect because palliative care focuses on improving quality of life rather than curing the underlying disease (A), prolonging life expectancy (C), or primarily addressing family concerns (D). Prioritizing pain and symptom management aligns with the holistic approach of palliative care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Start with Background - statement B provides relevant background information about the patient's current condition and why there is a need for communication. Step 2: Move on to Situation - statement D sets the current situation where the nurse expresses concern about the patient's symptom. Step 3: Next is Assessment - statement C details the nurse's assessment findings, highlighting the critical aspects of the patient's condition. Step 4: End with Recommendation - statement A suggests the necessary action to be taken based on the assessment findings. This order ensures a clear and structured communication process. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the recommendation should come after providing background, situation, and assessment. - Choice C is incorrect as assessment details should precede the patient's critical condition. - Choice D is incorrect as the situation should be explained before expressing concern.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ultrafiltration is the correct answer because it involves the removal of plasma water and low-molecular weight particles by using a pressure or osmotic gradient. During ultrafiltration, the pressure gradient pushes the fluid through a semipermeable membrane, separating the substances based on their molecular size. This process allows for the selective removal of unwanted substances while retaining essential components. Dialysis (choice A) involves the removal of waste products from the blood, but it does not specifically target plasma water and low-molecular weight particles. Diffusion (choice B) is the passive movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration and is not specific to the removal of plasma water. Clearance (choice C) refers to the rate at which a substance is removed from the blood and does not involve the mechanism of pressure or osmotic gradient utilized in ultrafiltration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed. A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4�F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT. B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment. C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.