ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

Questions 66

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.

Question 2 of 5

What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

Question 3 of 5

What is an escharotomy, and why is it performed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. Choice A is the correct answer because the primary goal of an escharotomy is to prevent compartment syndrome caused by increased pressure within the affected tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily performed to reduce pain, remove necrotic tissue, or drain fluid from a burn wound, but to address the specific issue of compromised blood flow and pressure within deep burn injuries.

Question 4 of 5

What intervention is required when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the appropriate intervention. This action can often resolve an air leak, which is the common cause of continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it is not recommended as the first-line intervention because it may lead to complications or unnecessary tube changes. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without addressing the air leak would delay necessary corrective action, potentially causing respiratory compromise in the patient. Therefore, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the most suitable initial step to manage continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

Question 5 of 5

A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

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