Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because volunteering to serve on a disaster response planning committee demonstrates awareness of current events affecting critical care nursing. By actively participating in planning for potential disasters, the nurse shows a proactive approach to staying informed and prepared for emergencies. This behavior indicates a commitment to staying up-to-date with the evolving landscape of critical care nursing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A: Participating in recruitment efforts may be important but does not directly demonstrate awareness of current events affecting critical care nursing. C: Adhering to basic nursing program content is necessary but does not show active engagement with current events in critical care nursing. D: Attending hospital-mandated in-services is valuable, but without seeking additional education or involvement in current events, it does not illustrate awareness of the changing critical care nursing environment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale. This approach ensures individualized dosing based on the patient's response, minimizing the risk of over-sedation or under-treatment. It allows for careful monitoring and adjustment of dosage to achieve the desired level of sedation while avoiding adverse effects. A: Administering medication around the clock may lead to unnecessary sedation and increased risk of side effects. B: Administering medications through a feeding tube is not recommended for benzodiazepines as it may affect absorption and increase the risk of complications. C: Giving the highest allowable dose without considering individual response can result in excessive sedation and adverse effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40%. In septic shock, improving oxygen delivery to tissues is vital. SvO2 reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. A value of 40% indicates adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. A: Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L - Although a low lactate level is good, it does not directly indicate improved oxygen delivery. B: Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min - Cardiac output should ideally increase to improve oxygen delivery, so 2.5 L/min is low for a 70-kg patient. D: Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Cardiac index is cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. 1.5 L/min/m2 is low and indicates inadequate cardiac function for a patient in septic shock.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide rest periods to reduce fatigue. Prioritizing rest periods can help alleviate fatigue, a common symptom in patients with advanced cancer. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice A) may not be effective if the patient has no appetite. Administering appetite stimulants (choice B) may not address the root cause of fatigue. Discussing parenteral nutrition (choice D) is not the priority as it does not directly address the fatigue and loss of appetite reported by the patient. Rest is essential for symptom management and overall well-being in palliative care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because nociceptors are specialized nerve receptors that do not adapt much to continual pain response. This lack of adaptation allows nociceptors to continuously signal the presence of tissue-damaging stimuli, which is crucial for the perception of pain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nociceptors do not inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils (B), they do play a role in the inflammatory response (C), and they transmit various types of stimuli including thermal, mechanical, and chemical, not just thermal stimuli (D).