Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Monotrichous means having a single flagellum at one end. 2. The term "polar" indicates that the flagellum is located at one end of the bacterium. 3. Therefore, bacteria with a single polar flagellum are referred to as monotrichous. 4. Choice A is a typo, as it is the same as the correct answer B. Summary: - Choice A is a typo, as it duplicates the correct answer. - Choice C, amphitrichous, refers to bacteria with a flagellum at each end. - Choice D, peritrichous, describes bacteria with flagella distributed over the entire surface.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prions. Autoclaving, a method of sterilization using high pressure and steam, is effective at destroying most microorganisms including fungi, bacteria, viruses, and most bacterial spores due to denaturation of their proteins and nucleic acids. However, prions are highly resistant infectious proteins that are not easily eliminated by autoclaving. Prions can withstand high temperatures and pressure, making them a challenge to eradicate. Neurotoxins (A), protozoan cysts (C), and mycoplasmas (D) are susceptible to autoclaving and would be destroyed during the process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 20 minutes. Escherichia coli has a short generation time, typically around 20 minutes. This means that under ideal conditions, one bacterium can divide and produce two daughter cells every 20 minutes. This rapid growth rate is a characteristic of E. coli and is important in various fields such as microbiology and biotechnology. Choice B (60 minutes) and Choice C (20 hours) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical generation time of E. coli. Choice D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is too long for the generation time of E. coli.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The patient has symptoms of fever, enlarged lymph nodes, red and tender skin, which are indicative of systemic infection. 2. The inguinal lymph nodes in plague become enlarged, tender, and painful, forming buboes. 3. The presence of acute serohemorrhagic inflammation in the lymph node is characteristic of plague. 4. Plague is a zoonotic bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, commonly transmitted through fleas from rodents. 5. Brucellosis, anthrax, and tularemia do not typically present with inguinal lymph node involvement and acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. Summary: - Brucellosis: Usually presents with flu-like symptoms, joint pain, and fever, not inguinal lymph node enlargement. - Anthrax: Presents with skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms, not inguinal lymph node involvement. - Tularemia: Presents with fever, skin ulcers,