ATI RN
medical microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The total magnification of an object viewed with a compound microscope with an ocular lens of ×10 and an objective lens of ×40 is ×__________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the total magnification, we multiply the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens. In this case, 10 (ocular) x 40 (objective) = 400. This is why choice C (400) is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the correct calculation of total magnification based on the given magnification powers of the ocular and objective lenses.
Question 2 of 5
Which bacteria are associated with causing urinary tract infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus) can cause urinary tract infections. E. coli is the most common causative agent of UTIs, followed by Staphylococcus aureus and occasionally Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Each of these bacteria has different virulence factors that enable them to infect the urinary tract. Therefore, it is important to consider all three options when diagnosing and treating UTIs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of those bacteria can individually cause UTIs, so the correct answer is D, as it encompasses all the possible causative agents.
Question 3 of 5
2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recepient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.
Question 4 of 5
A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.
Question 5 of 5
Saddle nose is characteristic of which of the following congenital infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Saddle nose is a condition where the bridge of the nose collapses, a characteristic feature of congenital syphilis. This occurs due to inflammation and destruction of cartilage. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. CMV, Rubella, and Toxoplasmosis do not typically cause saddle nose. CMV can result in hearing loss, Rubella can lead to cataracts and heart defects, and Toxoplasmosis may cause hydrocephalus or chorioretinitis.
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