microbiology an introduction test bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is cell wall synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins, which are essential for building the bacterial cell wall. By disrupting cell wall synthesis, beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis and death. Protein synthesis (Choice A), DNA replication (Choice B), and folic acid synthesis (Choice D) are not directly targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule is characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicate a Streptococcus species. Step 2: The presence of a capsule suggests S. pneumoniae specifically. Summary: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci but does not typically present in pairs with a capsule. C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 1. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. 2. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the US. 3. The U.S. Department of Labor oversees OSHA's operations and regulations. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as OSHA is a division of the U.S. Department of Labor. 5. Other choices are incorrect because they are not directly related to OSHA's jurisdiction or responsibilities.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cell wall composition. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on the structure of their cell walls. It classifies bacteria into Gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan layer) and Gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan layer). This differentiation is crucial for identifying bacterial species and guiding treatment choices. Size and shape (choice A) are not specific to Gram staining. Presence of flagella (choice B) is related to bacterial motility, not Gram staining. Genetic material (choice D) is not directly assessed by Gram staining. Overall, the unique composition of the cell wall is the key factor in distinguishing bacteria through Gram staining.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not