Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes. This is the priority nursing action because it helps prevent bleeding and hematoma formation after removing the arterial line. Applying pressure for 5 minutes allows for adequate hemostasis. A: Applying an air occlusion dressing to the insertion site is not the priority action. It does not address the immediate need to control bleeding. C: Elevating the affected limb on pillows for 24 hours is not necessary and does not address the immediate need for hemostasis. D: Keeping the patient's wrist in a neutral position is not the priority action when discontinuing an arterial line. It does not address the need for hemostasis and preventing bleeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. This is the most appropriate option for immediate hemodialysis when the patient has no vascular access. A percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside, allowing for immediate initiation of hemodialysis. Choice B, a percutaneous tunneled catheter, involves a more complex insertion process and is not typically done at the bedside. Choices C and D, arteriovenous fistula and arteriovenous graft, require advanced planning and surgical procedures, making them unsuitable for immediate hemodialysis in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer. The new onset confusion in an elderly patient in the ICU can be a sign of delirium, which is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and management. By notifying the healthcare provider, they can assess the patient's condition, order appropriate tests, and adjust the treatment plan as needed. Postponing the transfer allows for further observation and intervention to address the underlying cause of the confusion. Choice A (Give PRN lorazepam and cancel the transfer) is incorrect because administering lorazepam may worsen the confusion in an elderly patient and should not be done without proper evaluation. Choice B (Inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient) is incorrect because transferring the patient without addressing the new onset confusion can lead to potential complications and delay in appropriate management. Choice D (Obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient) is incorrect because using restraints should only be considered as a

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes. This is the priority nursing action because it helps prevent bleeding and hematoma formation after removing the arterial line. Applying pressure for 5 minutes allows for adequate hemostasis. A: Applying an air occlusion dressing to the insertion site is not the priority action. It does not address the immediate need to control bleeding. C: Elevating the affected limb on pillows for 24 hours is not necessary and does not address the immediate need for hemostasis. D: Keeping the patient's wrist in a neutral position is not the priority action when discontinuing an arterial line. It does not address the need for hemostasis and preventing bleeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Do you feel safe in your home?" This question is most appropriate because it directly addresses the potential issue of elder abuse without assuming or accusing the patient. It allows the patient to disclose any safety concerns and initiates a conversation about their well-being. Options B and D are inappropriate as they are accusatory and may escalate the situation. Option C is not as direct and may not effectively address the safety concerns of the patient.