microbiology chapter 11 test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is characterized by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing wound infections due to its ability to produce toxins and enzymes. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause infections. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative and typically causes streptococcal infections, not wound infections. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and typically associated with urinary tract infections. Thus, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Shigella is a nonmotile bacterium. 2. This lack of motility is a key characteristic used to differentiate it from other enteric bacteria. 3. Nonmotile nature of Shigella helps it to cause infections by invading the intestinal epithelial cells. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct as Shigella is indeed nonmotile. Summary: A: Incorrect - Shigella does not produce hydrogen sulfide. B: Incorrect - Shigella does not ferment lactose. D: Incorrect - Shigella is not mannitol positive.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular bacteria, hence they do not form spores, capsules, or flagella. 2. They have a slim glycocalyx layer, aiding in attachment to host cells. 3. Bipolar fimbriae are structures that help in adhesion to host cells. Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are true for Rickettsiae, making option D the correct answer. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of Rickettsiae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. Glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar resembling mercury drops indicate Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough. The presence of short Gram-negative bacteria further supports this identification. Option B, Haemophilus influenzae, typically grows as small, round, translucent colonies on chocolate agar. Option C, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, forms gray colonies on tellurite agar. Option D, Klebsiella pneumoniae, appears as mucoid colonies on MacConkey agar.