ATI Pathophysiology Exam

Questions 43

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pathophysiology Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.

Question 2 of 5

A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.

Question 4 of 5

A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

Question 5 of 5

A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.

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