ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is conducting a nursing history of a client with a respiratory rate of 30, audible wheezing, and nasal flaring. During the interview, the client denies problems with breathing. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The nurse should clarify discrepancies of assessment data with the client to ensure accurate information. 2. The client's denial of breathing problems conflicts with physical signs, indicating a potential lack of awareness or reluctance to disclose symptoms. 3. By clarifying with the client, the nurse can address any misunderstandings or encourage honest communication. 4. This approach promotes client-centered care and ensures a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it addresses the need to clarify discrepancies with the client for accurate assessment. - Choice B is incorrect as validation with the healthcare team may not provide insight into the client's perception. - Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the need to resolve conflicting assessment data. - Choice D is incorrect as family input may not provide accurate information if the client denies symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
What is the causative agent in HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Human, T-cell lymphotrophic virus, as it is the causative agent for HIV/AIDS. This virus specifically targets and infects the body's T-cells, weakening the immune system. Trichomonas vaginalis, Treponema pallidum, and Chlamydia trachomatis are all different pathogens that do not cause HIV/AIDS. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, and Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific viral agent responsible for HIV/AIDS.
Question 3 of 5
A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Radiation therapy targets fast-growing cancer cells, which can also affect healthy cells such as those in hair follicles, leading to hair loss. This adverse effect occurs commonly with radiation therapy due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells. Hair loss is a well-known side effect that clients undergoing radiation therapy are often prepared for. The other choices, B: Fatigue, C: Stomatitis, and D: Vomiting, are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but hair loss is specifically associated with radiation treatment due to its effect on hair follicles. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer treatment in general, stomatitis is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, and vomiting can be a side effect of radiation but is not as directly linked as hair loss.
Question 4 of 5
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states �I am allergic to latex.� Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take to assess the severity of the latex allergy and determine appropriate interventions. By gathering more information about the reaction, the nurse can better understand the potential risks and provide safe care. Summary of other choices: A: Immediately placing the patient in isolation is unnecessary and not indicated based solely on the patient's latex allergy. C: Proceeding to the termination phase of the interview is premature without fully assessing the patient's allergy. D: Documenting the allergy is important but should not be the first action without assessing the reaction itself.
Question 5 of 5
On a visit to the gynecologist, a client complains of urinary frequency, pelvic discomfort, and weight loss. After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer. The nurse expects to prepare the client for which initial treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer is major surgery (Choice C). This is because at this advanced stage, surgery is typically performed to debulk the tumor and remove as much cancerous tissue as possible, followed by chemotherapy to target any remaining cancer cells. Radiation therapy (Choice A) is not typically the initial treatment for ovarian cancer. Chemotherapy (Choice B) is often used in combination with surgery, but surgery is usually the first line of treatment for stage IV disease. Choosing no treatment (Choice D) would be detrimental as the cancer is advanced and requires immediate intervention.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access