Oncology Test Bank

Questions 49

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Oncology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

Question 2 of 5

A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.

Question 4 of 5

A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematologic cancers. Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at a high risk of developing second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common complication. Regular health assessments are crucial for early detection and management. Iron-deficiency anemia (A) is not a typical long-term complication of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic bleeding disorder unrelated to Hodgkin lymphoma. Genitourinary cancers (D) are not the most common complication seen in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.

Question 5 of 5

An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

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