Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions

Questions 81

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Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient in septic shock with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which hemodynamic value indicates an appropriate response to therapy aimed at enhancing oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40%. In septic shock, improving oxygen delivery to tissues is vital. SvO2 reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. A value of 40% indicates adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. A: Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L - Although a low lactate level is good, it does not directly indicate improved oxygen delivery. B: Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min - Cardiac output should ideally increase to improve oxygen delivery, so 2.5 L/min is low for a 70-kg patient. D: Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Cardiac index is cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. 1.5 L/min/m2 is low and indicates inadequate cardiac function for a patient in septic shock.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient w ith a pulmonary artery catheter who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings. When obtaining continuous hemodynamic monitoring measurements, what is the best nursing action?a birb.com/test

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Option C is the correct answer because when caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter receiving continuous enteral feedings, it is crucial to level and zero reference the transducer with the patient's head of bed elevated to 30 degrees. This position helps to ensure accurate hemodynamic measurements, as the head of bed elevation minimizes the impact of intra-abdominal pressure on the catheter readings. By referencing the transducer in this position, the nurse can obtain reliable and precise hemodynamic values. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: This option is incorrect because delaying documentation until the patient is in the supine position can lead to inaccuracies in the hemodynamic readings due to changes in patient positioning. B: Leveling and zero referencing the transducer with the patient in the supine position is not ideal as it does not account for the impact of intra-abdominal pressure on the catheter readings in patients receiving enteral feedings. D: Leveling and zero referencing

Question 3 of 5

The nurse obtains the pulse rate of 89 beats/minute for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infants typically have higher resting heart rates than adults, so a pulse rate of 89 beats/minute for an infant may indicate bradycardia. Digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to potential adverse effects like arrhythmias. Therefore, withholding the medication and contacting the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure the safety of the infant. Choice B is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the elevated pulse rate can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as assessing respiratory rate does not address the immediate concern of the elevated pulse rate. Choice D is also incorrect as waiting and giving half of the dosage may further exacerbate the situation.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving benzodiazepine intermittently. What is the best way to administer such drugs?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale. This approach ensures individualized dosing based on the patient's response, minimizing the risk of over-sedation or under-treatment. It allows for careful monitoring and adjustment of dosage to achieve the desired level of sedation while avoiding adverse effects. A: Administering medication around the clock may lead to unnecessary sedation and increased risk of side effects. B: Administering medications through a feeding tube is not recommended for benzodiazepines as it may affect absorption and increase the risk of complications. C: Giving the highest allowable dose without considering individual response can result in excessive sedation and adverse effects.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is in card iogenic shock and has failed to respond to medical treatment. The primary care provider conducts a conference to explain that they have exhausted treatment options and suggest that the patient be made a �do not resuscitate� status. This scenario illustrates what medical concept?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Futility. In this scenario, the primary care provider suggests making the patient a "do not resuscitate" status because further medical treatment is deemed futile. Futility refers to situations where medical interventions are unlikely to achieve the desired outcome. This decision is made when the benefits of continuing treatment do not outweigh the burdens on the patient. Summary: A: Brain death does not apply here as the patient is not brain dead. C: Incompetence refers to the patient's ability to make decisions, not the medical concept being illustrated. D: Life-prolonging procedures are not being discussed; the focus is on the futility of further treatment.

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