ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, hear t rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value reqaubiirrbe.sco imm/temste diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with signs of pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia, indicating possible cardiogenic pulmonary edema. As the cardiac output is a key indicator of how well the heart is functioning and delivering blood to the body, a low cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, immediate action is required to address the low cardiac output to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of inadequate cardiac output in this patient. Cardiac index, pulmonary vascular resistance, and systemic vascular resistance are important parameters to monitor, but in this case, the priority is to address the low cardiac output to improve the patient's condition.
Question 2 of 5
What is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in pat ients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insertion of a vena cava filter. This is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants. The vena cava filter prevents blood clots from traveling to the lungs by trapping them in the inferior vena cava. It is a mechanical device that does not interfere with the body's clotting process. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours is not an effective strategy for preventing thromboembolism in high-risk patients. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and may not be sufficient for preventing blood clots in these patients. B: Infusion of thrombolytics is used for breaking down blood clots that have already formed, not for prevention. It is not a suitable option for preventing thromboembolism in at-risk patients. D: Subcutaneous heparin administration every 12
Question 3 of 5
assessment, the patient is restless, heart rate has increased to 110 beats/min, respirat ions are 36 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 156/98 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor shows sin us tachycardia with 10 premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) per minute. Pulmonary artery pressures are elevated. The nurse suctions the patient and obtains pink, frothy secretio ns. Loud crackles are audible throughout lung fields. The nurse notifies the physician, who orders an ABG analysis, electrolyte levels, and a portable chest x-ray study. In comambirubn.ciocma/tteinstg with the physician, which statement indicates the nurse understands what is likely occurring with the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: �My assessment indicates potential fluid overload.� The patient is showing signs of fluid overload, such as increased heart rate, respiratory rate, elevated blood pressure, pulmonary artery pressures, frothy secretions, and crackles in lung fields. These symptoms suggest fluid is accumulating in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion. This can lead to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress. The nurse's recognition of these signs is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Other choices are incorrect because there are no indications of a myocardial infarction, PVCs compromising cardiac output, or a hypertensive crisis based on the given information.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with an admitting diagnosis of congestive failure. While attempting to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure in the supine position, the patient becomes anxious and tachypneic. What is the best action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees while recording pressures. Rationale: 1. Elevating the head of the bed will help improve the patient's breathing by reducing the pressure on the diaphragm. 2. This position will also help alleviate the patient's anxiety and tachypnea, promoting better oxygenation. 3. Recording pressures in this position will provide accurate data for monitoring the patient's condition. Summary: A: Limiting the supine position to 10 seconds does not address the underlying issues causing the patient's anxiety and tachypnea. B: Administering anxiety medications without addressing the positioning issue may not effectively manage the patient's symptoms. C: Encouraging the patient to take slow deep breaths is helpful, but changing the position of the patient is more crucial in this situation.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.
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