Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Job description is crucial for clarifying roles and responsibilities, ensuring staff understand their duties. Step 2: Regular review of job descriptions helps align staff performance with organizational goals and expectations. Step 3: It allows for identifying areas of improvement and providing necessary support and resources. Step 4: Academic performance in college, family dynamics, and number of incident reports are not directly related to work performance. Summary: Regularly reviewing staff job descriptions is essential for enhancing performance by clarifying roles, aligning expectations, and identifying areas for improvement. Other choices lack direct relevance to work performance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal colic due to ureteral calculus. The sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin along with tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria are classic symptoms of kidney stones (ureteral calculus). The pain results from the obstruction of urine flow by the stone, leading to increased pressure and spasm in the ureter. Acute pyelonephritis (choice A) presents with fever, chills, and systemic symptoms. Renal artery embolism (choice B) typically presents with acute onset severe flank pain but is associated with risk factors like atrial fibrillation. Renal infarction (choice D) presents with sudden-onset severe flank pain but is less likely than ureteral calculus in a patient with a history of nephrolithiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). This intervention is prioritized as it helps improve oxygenation and ventilation in COPD exacerbation without the need for invasive mechanical ventilation, reducing the risk of ventilator-associated complications. NIPPV also decreases the work of breathing and can prevent the need for intubation. Administering bronchodilator medications (B) is important in COPD exacerbation but may not address the immediate need for ventilatory support. Endotracheal intubation (C) should be reserved for cases of respiratory failure not responding to NIPPV. Chest physiotherapy (D) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention for managing acute COPD exacerbation.