Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hashimoto's thyroiditis. This autoimmune disorder results in chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland, leading to thyroid nodules and hypothyroidism. The colloid-filled spaces seen in the biopsy are characteristic of Hashimoto's. Choice B: Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Choice C: Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the thyroid. Choice D: Thyroid nodules is a general term and does not explain the presence of colloid-filled spaces.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abrasion. Abrasion is the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources like toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste. Dental caries (A) refers to tooth decay caused by bacteria. Attrition (B) is the wearing down of tooth structure due to tooth-to-tooth contact. Erosion (D) is the loss of tooth structure from acid attacks, not friction. Therefore, option C is the most fitting choice based on the description given.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal colic due to ureteral calculus. The sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin along with tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria are classic symptoms of kidney stones (ureteral calculus). The pain results from the obstruction of urine flow by the stone, leading to increased pressure and spasm in the ureter. Acute pyelonephritis (choice A) presents with fever, chills, and systemic symptoms. Renal artery embolism (choice B) typically presents with acute onset severe flank pain but is associated with risk factors like atrial fibrillation. Renal infarction (choice D) presents with sudden-onset severe flank pain but is less likely than ureteral calculus in a patient with a history of nephrolithiasis.