Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Questions 71

ATI RN

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Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is aware that multiple sclerosis is a progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a progressive disease affecting the central nervous system. Step 2: Axon degeneration occurs in MS, leading to impaired nerve signal transmission. Step 3: MS is characterized by sclerosed patches, or plaques, in the nervous system. Step 4: Demyelination of the brain and spinal cord is a hallmark feature of MS. Step 5: Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they accurately describe key features of MS.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the ff finding would confirm that a female client has mastitis? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because mastitis typically presents with swollen, firm, and hard breasts due to inflammation and infection of the breast tissue. This occurs as a result of milk stasis and bacterial infection. Option A is incorrect because a crack in the nipple or areola can be indicative of nipple trauma or infection, not necessarily mastitis. Option B is incorrect because multiple lumps within the breast tissue may suggest fibrocystic changes or breast cancer, but not specifically mastitis. Option D is incorrect because enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes is more commonly seen in breast cancer, not mastitis.

Question 3 of 5

What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Question 5 of 5

Which nursing action is most appropriate for the weak patient with osteoporosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ambulate with assistance. Ambulating helps prevent further bone loss and strengthens muscles, important for osteoporosis patients. Bedrest can worsen bone density loss. Encouraging fluids and providing a high-protein diet are important for overall health but do not directly address the weakness associated with osteoporosis.

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