clinical skills questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A proton pump inhibitor. When a patient is receiving hydrocortisone for adrenal crisis, it can lead to increased gastric acid secretion. A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce acid production and prevents gastric ulcers. Regular insulin (A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Canagliflozin (C) is a medication used for diabetes management and is not relevant here. Propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and may mask signs of hypoglycemia when used with insulin, which is not suitable in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Increased ability to excrete drugs. Rationale: 1. Renal insufficiency impairs kidney function, leading to decreased excretion of drugs. 2. In elderly patients with renal insufficiency, there may be compensatory mechanisms to enhance drug excretion. 3. This increased ability to excrete drugs helps prevent drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Summary: A: Increased GFR is not expected in renal insufficiency; it typically decreases. B: Serum creatinine level would likely be elevated in renal insufficiency, not normal. D: Hypokalemia is not a typical lab finding in renal insufficiency; hyperkalemia is more common.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presence of protein in the glomerular filtrate indicates a problem with renal function as healthy kidneys should not allow large molecules like proteins to pass through the filtration barrier. This could be a sign of kidney damage or dysfunction. Sodium, creatinine, and red blood cells are normally present in the filtrate and are not specific indicators of renal function issues. Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the renal tubules, creatinine is a waste product filtered by the kidneys, and a small number of red blood cells may pass through the filtration barrier under normal circumstances.