nclex physical and health assessment questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform an otoscopic examination of the left naris. The rationale for this is that the child presenting with purulent, malodorous drainage from one naris may indicate a foreign body lodged in the left naris causing infection. By performing an otoscopic examination, the nurse can visualize inside the naris to identify any foreign body or signs of infection. This step is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Referring the child for an antibiotic prescription without further assessment is premature and may not address the underlying cause. B: Having the mother bring the child back in 1 week delays the necessary examination and potential treatment. D: Telling the mother that this is normal without proper assessment could lead to overlooking a potential health issue that requires intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: candidiasis. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans, commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals like cancer patients post-chemotherapy. The raw, red, and bleeding areas indicate mucosal irritation, while the white, cheesy coating represents fungal overgrowth. Carcinoma (choice A) refers to cancerous growths, which typically present differently. Leukoplakia (choice C) is a precancerous lesion characterized by white patches, not raw areas with bleeding. Koplik's spots (choice D) are small, white spots seen in the mouth in measles, not indicative of the described findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A thin, translucent membrane. In elderly patients, the tympanic membrane tends to become thinner and more translucent due to age-related changes. This is considered a normal finding as it is a common occurrence in older individuals. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Loss of high-tone frequency hearing is not a normal finding in an ear examination of an elderly patient, as age-related hearing loss typically affects high frequencies. B) Increased elasticity of the pinna is not a common age-related change and may indicate a different issue. D) A shiny pink tympanic membrane is not a typical finding in an elderly patient and could suggest inflammation or infection instead of a normal age-related change.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because vision is not fully developed until around 2 years of age. Newborns have limited visual capabilities and their visual acuity improves over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infants do not develop the ability to focus on an object at 8 months (B), develop coordinated eye movements by 3 months (C), or have uncoordinated eye movements in the first year of life (D). These statements do not accurately reflect the timeline of visual development in infants.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.