ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old patient with head injuries from a recent motor vehicle accident. Which of the following statements indicates the most important reason for assessing for any drainage from the canal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. 2. Basal skull fractures can cause cerebrospinal fluid leakage, leading to clear watery drainage. 3. Blood in the ear canal can suggest a temporal bone fracture. 4. Assessing for drainage helps identify potential serious head injuries. Summary: A. Incorrect. Purulent drainage indicates infection, not related to head injuries. C. Incorrect. Increased cerumen is not the priority in assessing head injuries. D. Incorrect. Foreign bodies in the canal are not the primary concern in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is testing a patient's visual accommodation, which refers to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Visual accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust focus when shifting gaze between objects at different distances. The correct answer is A, pupillary constriction when looking at a near object, as this is a key component of visual accommodation. When looking at a near object, the eye needs to adjust its focus by constricting the pupil to allow more depth of field and clearer vision. This process helps in bringing near objects into focus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object is not related to visual accommodation, as the pupil dilates in low light conditions to allow more light to enter the eye. C: Changes in peripheral vision in response to light is not related to visual accommodation, as peripheral vision refers to the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight. D: Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light is a protective reflex to shield the eyes from excessive light and is not directly related to visual
Question 3 of 5
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements about the outer layer of the eye is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are indeed stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of touch in the face and controls the muscles involved in chewing. The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, when the outer layer of the eye is touched or stimulated, these nerves are activated to convey the sensation to the brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: The outer layer of the eye is not particularly sensitive to touch compared to other areas like the cornea or conjunctiva. B: The outer layer of the eye is not darkly pigmented; the pigmented layer is actually the uvea inside the eye. D: The visual receptive layer of the eye, known as the retina, is located deeper within the eye, not
Question 5 of 5
During the assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notes the following: dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. This finding is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue indicate dehydration in the patient. Dehydration causes decreased saliva production, leading to dry mouth and tongue fissures. This is a common symptom of dehydration. The lack of moisture in the oral cavity can result in these physical signs. The other choices are incorrect because irritation by gastric juices typically presents with other symptoms, a normal oral condition would not show these specific findings, and side effects of nausea medication would not directly cause dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is A: dehydration.
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