Nursing Process Test Bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The waiting area with the television turned off. This setting provides a quiet environment, minimizing distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. It allows the nurse to communicate effectively by speaking clearly and facing the patient directly. Option A is incorrect because a closed door may not be enough to reduce background noise. Option C is incorrect as pain medication may affect the patient's ability to concentrate. Option D is incorrect because the occupational therapist working on leg exercises may create additional noise and distractions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications. A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values. D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.