Nursing Process Test Bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to administer antibiotics as ordered first because pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by an infection, usually from sexually transmitted organisms. Administering antibiotics promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and treat the underlying infection. This helps to alleviate the source of the pain. Rating pain severity, administering analgesics, and patient education are important but should come after addressing the infection to prevent worsening of the condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive family history. Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune condition where the body attacks its own intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. Genetic predisposition plays a significant role in the development of pernicious anemia. Family history is a key risk factor as individuals with a family history of pernicious anemia are more likely to develop the condition. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Infectious agents or toxins do not directly cause pernicious anemia, although they can lead to other types of anemia. C: Acute or chronic blood loss can result in iron-deficiency anemia, not pernicious anemia. D: Inadequate dietary intake of vitamin B12 can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, but pernicious anemia specifically involves the body's inability to absorb B12 due to intrinsic factor deficiency, not dietary intake alone.