Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in knee-chest position. This helps relieve pressure on the cord and prevents further compression, ensuring adequate blood flow to the fetus. Pushing the cord back in (A) can worsen the situation. Covering the cord (B) does not address the urgent need to relieve pressure. Immediate vaginal delivery (D) may not be possible or safe at 32 weeks. Placing the client in the knee-chest position is the most immediate and effective action to manage cord prolapse.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improve fetal oxygenation. Oxygen at 4 liters/minute is given to increase oxygen levels which can help improve oxygenation to the fetus during a cord prolapse scenario. This can be crucial in preventing fetal distress and hypoxia. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Relieve maternal distress - Oxygen is primarily given in this scenario to benefit the fetus, not to relieve maternal distress. B: Promote her relative rest - Oxygen is not administered to promote rest, but to address the immediate concern of fetal oxygenation. D: Achieve the effect of tocolysis - Oxygen does not have a role in tocolysis, which is the inhibition of uterine contractions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puerperal pyrexia. Maternal febrile condition within the first three weeks postpartum is suggestive of puerperal pyrexia, which is defined as a fever of 38�C or higher occurring after the first 24 hours post-delivery. This condition is commonly caused by endometritis, a uterine infection following childbirth. Puerperal sepsis (choice A) is a more severe form of infection involving systemic symptoms, while puerperal thrombosis (choice B) refers to blood clot formation. Puerperal shock (choice D) is a life-threatening condition resulting from severe infection or hemorrhage, which may present with fever but is not the primary symptom.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Always of the same sex. Monozygotic twins develop from a single fertilized egg, so they have the same genetic material, making them always the same sex. This is due to the fact that the sex of an individual is determined by the chromosomes inherited from the parents. This is a fundamental principle of genetics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monozygotic twins can have different fingerprints, blood groups, and superfetation (conception that occurs during an existing pregnancy) is not common in monozygotic twins.