microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly found in hospital environments due to its ability to colonize human skin and mucous membranes. It is a leading cause of hospital-acquired infections. Borrelia burgdorferi is mainly associated with Lyme disease transmitted by ticks, not commonly found in hospitals. Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen, not typically prevalent in hospital settings. Staphylococcus haemolyticus is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus species, less pathogenic and less common in hospitals compared to Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because infectious (non-sterile) immunity is achieved through the persistence of the infectious agent in the body, allowing the immune system to continuously recognize and combat the pathogen. This type of immunity provides long-lasting protection against future infections by the same agent. Choice A (cross-reactivity of antibodies) is incorrect as it refers to the ability of antibodies to recognize similar antigens, not necessarily related to infectious immunity. Choice B (toxemia and formation of antitoxic antibodies) is incorrect as it specifically relates to toxins produced by pathogens and the corresponding antibody response, not the persistence of the infectious agent itself. Choice D (neutralization of infectious agent) is incorrect as it describes the process of antibodies binding to and inactivating pathogens, but it does not necessarily lead to long-term immunity through the persistence of the infectious agent.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rheumatic fever is caused by untreated strep throat. Step 1: Strep throat is caused by Streptococcus bacteria. Step 2: If strep throat is not treated with antibiotics, it may lead to rheumatic fever due to the body's immune response attacking its own tissues. Summary: Gangrene, brucellosis, and tularemia are not associated with rheumatic fever.