microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The most common bacterial species in hospital environment is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly found in hospital environments due to its ability to colonize human skin and mucous membranes. It is a leading cause of hospital-acquired infections. Borrelia burgdorferi is mainly associated with Lyme disease transmitted by ticks, not commonly found in hospitals. Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen, not typically prevalent in hospital settings. Staphylococcus haemolyticus is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus species, less pathogenic and less common in hospitals compared to Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 2 of 5

The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection of these spores?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.

Question 3 of 5

A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What is the drug of choice for its treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due

Question 4 of 5

A 3 month old infant has got a white deposition on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and lips. The doctor suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be used for inoculation of the material under examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed for the cultivation of fungi and yeasts, making it ideal for identifying Candida species causing candidosis. It contains antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth, promoting the growth of fungi. Endo, Loewenstein-Jensen, and Roux are not suitable for fungal cultures and are used for different purposes like bacterial isolation or mycobacterial cultures. Sabouraud agar is the best choice for confirming candidosis due to its fungal-selective properties.

Question 5 of 5

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.

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